You're right about the 'Atlas of Middle-earth', but I wondered if there was any actual Tolkien evidence.
Turgon's reaction was in direct response to the Second Kinslaying. Even though he hated them already it looks like something else might have happened to get him to say that - what what so much worse about the second Kinslaying than the first?
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Turgon's reaction was in direct response to the Second Kinslaying. Even though he hated them already it looks like something else might have happened to get him to say that - what what so much worse about the second Kinslaying than the first?